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Showing posts with label Technical Jobs. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Technical Jobs. Show all posts

ISRO Placement Paper For Computer Science

Posted by Carees India On 1:17 PM

1.The minimum number of edges in a connected cyclic graph on n vertices is
a) n-1
b) n
c) n+1
d) none of these
2.A full binary tree with n non leaf nodes contains
a) n nodes
b) log n nodes
c)2n-1 nodes
d)2n nodes
3.The time complexity of shell sort a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n 1.2 )
d)O(n2)
4.The time taken to insert an element after an element pointed by some pointer
a) O(1)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n)
d) O(nlogn)
5. what is the name given to the first generation computer?
a) Binary language
b)Machine language
c)Assembly language
6.The root directory of a disk should be placed
a) at a fixed address in main memory
b) at a fixed location on disk
c) anywhere on disk.
7.A top down parser generates
a) right most derivation
b) left most derivation
c) right most derivation in reverse
d) left most derivation in reverse
8.what is the name of the OS that reads and reacts in terms of actual time?
a)batch system
b)time sharing
c)real time
9.FDDI is a
a)ring network
b)star network
c)mesh network
10.Computer memory consists of
a)ROM
b)PROM
c)RAM
d)all the above

Best Path Through MCSE in Six Exams

Posted by Carees India On 1:15 PM

Magnify Your Certifications in Six Exams

Many readers have asked me which exam route they should take in pursuing MCSE certification. This month, I am focusing on that question.

First, there is no single correct path. If you have been working with a particular product for a long time, then it will be easier for you to study for and pass an exam on that product than for a product you have no experience with. Aside from that, many persons will tell you that you should take the Networking Essentials exam first. The idea is that the Networking Essentials exam gives you a solid foundation for all the others, and that you should get the tough exam out of the way first.

I disagree. The Networking Essentials exam is nothing but memorization, which makes it one of the hardest exams out there. It is also the only Microsoft exam for which you do not get certification. Any other exam—if it is your first exam—makes you an MCP automatically. Why wait for two exams to become an MCP?

Here is my ideal path through the process—with certifications gained each step of the way—and my reasons for my choices:


1. Windows NT Server (70-067). You gain MCP status after passing this exam, which is one of the easiest exams available now. Windows NT is a product, and the exams for it have been divided into three parts: Server, Enterprise, and Workstation. The Workstation exam has all the questions about unattended installations, and the Enterprise exam has all the questions on trust relationships and domain models. These facts make the Server exam a good choice for a first test.


2. Windows NT Enterprise (70-068). Only 20% of the Enterprise exam covers material that wasn’t on the Server exam. Learn the new material and take the test while the Server exam is still fresh in your mind.


3. Windows NT Workstation (70-073). This exam is also a subset of the Server exam. Learn the new material and pass the test while the other two NTexams are still fresh in your mind.


4. TCP/IP (70-059). You had to learn a good bit about TCP/IP for the three previous exams. Now focus on the specifics of subnets (DNS, DHCP, WINS, and so forth) and pass this test. There are much harder exams out there than this one.


5. IIS (70-087). You gain MCP + I status after passing this exam. There is a great deal of overlap between TCP/IP and IIS, and there is a slight overlap between NT and IIS. Not only is the IIS exam a good one, but it also gives you a certification that carries value in the marketplace.


6. Network+. Instead of taking Microsoft’s Networking Essentials exam, take CompTIA’s new Network+ exam. Passing this single exam earns you the Network+ certification. What’s more, Microsoft accepts this exam as credit for the networking portion of the MCSE track. (Microsoft is a member of CompTIA.) If you have followed the course I’ve just laid out, you have now fulfilled all the requirements for MCSE status and have earned that certification as well.

These six exams maximize your route through the process and earn you four certifications to put on your business cards. For more information on the Network+ exam, which was scheduled to go live at the end of April, see www.ds-technical.com/ ems.html.

Objective Questions on Microwave Devices for BSNL and ISRO Exams

Posted by Carees India On 1:13 PM

  1. An amplifier uses step recovery diode for low level noise performance in the :
a) S- band         b) C – band        c) X – band         d) L – band
  1. Negative resistance region is not found in :
a) Tunnel diode                          b) Gunn diode
c) Impatt diode                           d) Backward diode
  1. Diode which is used for microwave power switching, limiting and modulation is :
a) crystal diode                          b) schottky barrier diode
c) backward diode                      d) PIN diode
  1. For very low power oscillators, the diode suited is :
a) Gunn b) Avalanche      c) Tunnel           d) IMPATT
  1. Material in which transferred electron bulk effect is observed is:
a) Germanium                            b) Silicon
c) Gallium Arsenide                    d) Metal semiconductor junctions
  1. A step recovery diode is best suited for :
a)       low order frequency multiplication
b)       high order frequency multiplication
c)       frequency addition
d)       None
  1. Diode which uses a high doping level to provide a narrow junction :
a) Gunn diode                            b) Tunnel diode
c) IMPATT diode                        d) None
  1. Diode in which negative resistance occurs due to the transfer of electrons to a less mobile energy level is :
a) Gunn diode                            b) Tunnel diode
c) IMPATT                                 d) None
  1. Gunn diodes are made of gallium arsenide because it :
a)       has a suitable empty energy band
b)       has a lower noise
c)       has a higher ion mobility
d)       is capable of handling power densities
  1. Snap off varactor is another name of :
a) PIN diode                              b) Step recovery diode
c) Avalanche diode                     d) Schottky barrier diode
  1. One of the following is called hot electron diode :
a) Schottky barrier diode b) Varactor diode
c) PIN diode                              d) None
  1. The noise performance of parametric amplifier is improved by:
a) cooling                                  b) using low value of resistance
c) heating                                  d) None
  1. Cooling is done in a ruby maser amplifier :
a)       as it generates a lot of heat
b)       to increase bandwidth
c)       it cannot work at room temperature
d)       to improve noise performance
  1. Advantage of BJT over FET at high frequencies is that :
a)       BJT are less noisy
b)       BJT lend themselves more readily to integration
c)       BJT are capable of high gains
d)       None
  1. The diode which has high efficiency than IMPATT is :
a) TRAPATT diode                     b) Tunnel diode
c) Gunn diode                            d) None
  1. Highest pulsed power output is obtained by :
a) Varactor        b) Gunn c) RIMPATT       d) Schottky barrier
  1. For operating at the highest frequencies a microwave transistor does not require :
a) high collector voltage              b) high collector current
c) thin base                               d) large emitter area
  1. The idler frequency of a non degenerate parametric amplifier having an input frequency of ft and pump frequency of fp is
a) fp – ft b) ft c) 2ft d) ft – fp
  1. For providing a greater bandwidth in parametric amplifiers one can use :
travelling wave parametric amplifier
degenerate amplifiers
Non-degenerate amplifiers
None
  1. A circulator is sometimes used with a parametric amplifier to :
a)       prevent noise feedback
b)       separate the signal and idler frequencies
c)       permit more efficient pumping
d)       None
  1. A high ratio of pump to signal frequency is a must in non – degenerate one port parametric amplifier because this :
a)       yields a low noise figure
b)       reduced the pump power
c)       permits high frequency operation
d)       permits low frequency operation
  1. An axial magnetic field and a radial electric field is used in :
a)       coaxial magnetron
b)       Reflex klystron
c)       CFA – cross field amplifier
d)       Travelling wave magnetron
  1. Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device:
a) CFA              b) BWO                        c) TWT              d) None
  1. Vaccum tubes fail at microwave frequencies because :
a)       noise figure increases
b)       transit time becomes too short
c)       shunt capacitive reactances become too large
d)       series inductive reactances become too small
  1. In microwave tubes the transit time will increase if :
a)       the electrodes are brought closer together
b)       a higher anode current is used
c)       multiple or coaxial leads are used
d)       None
  1. The TWT ……. than multicavity klystron :
a)       has a greater bandwidth
b)       is more efficient
c)       has a higher number of modes
d)       produces a higher output power
  1. Strapping is used in magnetron to :
a)       prevent mode jumping
b)       ensure bunching
c)       improve the phase focussing effect
d)       prevent cathode back heating
  1. Helix is used in a travelling wave tube to :
a)       ensure broadband operation
b)       reduce the noise figure
c)       reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
d)       None
  1. In the TWT the attenuator is used to :
a) prevent saturation                   b) increase gain
c) prevent oscillation                   d) help bunching
  1. Electronically adjustable oscillating frequency over wide range is possible in :
a) coaxial magnetron                  b) dither – tuned magnetron
c) VTM                                      d) None
  1. In a TWT glass tube aquadag is used to :
a) help focussing                        b) provide attenuation
c) improve bunching                   d) increase gain
  1. Which is not a TWT slow wave structure :
a) coupled cavity                        b) helix
c) ring bars                                d) periodic permanent magnet
  1. Match lise – I (Microwave devices) with List – 2 (application) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – 1                                List – 2
A. Reflex klystron          1. Wide band amplification
B. TWT                         2. Very low level amplification
C. 2-cavity klystron        3. Low Powe FM wave generation
D. MASER                    4. Frequency multiplication
Codes :
a)         A          B          C          D
1          2          3          4
b)         A          B          C          D
4          3          2          1
c)         A          B          C          D
3          4          1          2
d)         A          B          C          D
3          1          4          2
  1. The semiconductor diode which can be used in switching circuits at microwave range is :
a) PIN diode                              b) Varactor diode
c) Tunnel diode                          d) Gunn diode
  1. In a TWT, the phase velocity of the axial component of the RF field on the slow wave structure is kept :
a)       equal to the velocity of the electrons
b)       slightly less than the velocity of electrons
c)       slightly more than the velocity of electrons
d)       equal to the velocity of light in free space
  1. The amplification in parametric amplifier used in microwave communication system is limited by :
a) type of biasing                       b) a maximum limit of 10
c) pump energy                          d) frequency of operation
  1. Schottky diodes are used in wave sharing circuits because :
a)       they have a small recovery time
b)       they have a large reverse resistance
c)       they have a large forward current
d)       their peak inverse voltage is small
  1. The modes in a reflex klystron :
a)       give the same frequency but different transit time
b)       result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap
c)       are caused by spurious frequency modulation
d)       are just for theoretical considerations
  1. To overcome difficulties with strapping high frequencies the type of cavity structure desired for magnetron is :
a) hole and slot                          b) slot
c) rising sun                              d) vane
  1. TWT is at times preferred to magnetron for used in RADAR transmitter because it :
a) is more efficient amplifier         b) has broader band
c) is less noisy                          d) is capable of larger duty cycle
  1. Backward wave oscillator is based on :
a) cross field amplifier                 b) coaxial magnetron
c) travelling wave tube                 d) rising sun magnetron
  1. The most serious drawback of IMPATT diode is its :
a)       low efficiency
b)       higher noise
c)       low power handling capacity
d)       inability to provide pulsed operation
  1. A TRAPATT diode is preferred to an IMPATT diode because of :
a)       its higher efficiency
b)       its lower noise
c)       laser sensitivity of harmonics
d)       its larger bandwidth
  1. Gallium arsenide is preferred to silicon for use in Gunn diode because it has :
a)       lower noise at high frequencies
b)       high ion mobility
c)       suitable empty energy band which silicon does not have
d)       better frequency stability
  1. Gallium antimonide is prefered to germanium for use in tunnel diode since it permits :
a)       lower noise
b)       larger voltage swing
c)       better frequency stability
d)       simpler fabrication process
  1. Which one of the following can be used for amplification of microwave energy :
a) Travelling wave tube                b) Manetron
c) Reflex klystron                       d) Gunn diode
  1. A microstrip line of alumina substrate with er = 9 has a zero thickness strip of width. w = 3mm. Substrate thickness h = 0.5mm. Assuming TEM wave propagation and negligible fringing field, the characteristic impedance of the line will be approximately :
a) 10 ohm          b) 21 ohm          c) 26 ohm          d) 50 ohm
  1. In a Gunn oscillator where the diode is operated in a tunable resonant circuit most of the sample length of the Gunn device is maintained in the negative conductance stae during most of the RF cycle for :
a) delayed domain mode b) quenched domain mode
c) LSA mode                             d) hybrid mode
  1. For using as a local oscillator for frequency measurements, the most suitable microwave source would be :
a) TWT                                      b) Double cavity klystron
c) reflex klystron                        d) magnetron
  1. An IMPATT diode has a drift length of 4 mm. The drift velocity of Si is 105m/s. The operating frequency of the IMPATT diode is:
a) 25GHz          b) 20GHz          c) 12.5 GHz       d) 125 MHz
Antenna
  1. Which of the following will have least wavelength
a) VHF              b) EHF              c) HF                d) UHF
  1. 30 to 300 MHz frequency is catagorized as  :
a) MF                b) VHF              c) UHF              d) SHF
  1. For a frequency of 30 MHz the wavelength will be :
a) 10m              b) 1m                c) 0.1m             d) 0.01m
  1. The range of audio frequency is :
a) 20kHz to 15 MHz                   b) 20 kHz to 150 MHz
c) 20 Hz to 15MHz                     d) 20 Hz to 15 kHz
  1. The unit of electric field intensity E is :
a) Volts/metre                            b) Ampere/metre
c) Coulombs/metre                     d) Henry/metre
  1. The current distribution on a half wave dipole is :
a) uniform          b) sinusoidal      c) triangular       d) complex
  1. For a very high frequencies earth acts as a :
a)  conductor     b) dielectric       c) resistor          d) None of these
  1. A wavelength of 15mm could be expected in :
a) VHF              b) HF                c) EHF              d) SHF
  1. An antenna is synonymous to a :
a) generator       b) transformer    C) regulator       d) reflector
  1. Free space is the :
a)       region outside the antenna region
b)       region within the antenna region
c)       region around the antenna tower
d)       None of these
  1. Magnesium is alloyed with conducting materials for antenna primarily with the purpose of
a)       increasing efficiency
b)       improving radiative power
c)       reducing weight
d)       increasing density
  1. The material having directional properties are known as :
a) homogenous                          b) isotropic
c) anisotropic                             d) oriental
  1. A short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1 MHz. The effective height of the antenna is 30m. The calculated value of radiation resistance is :
a) 1.58W           b) 158W            c) 15.8W           d) None of these
  1. If a vertical dipole antenna is used in conjunction with a loop antenna for direction finding, then the field pattern obtained will be :
a)
b)
c)
d)
  1. The gain of an antenna :
a)       varies inversely as wavelength
b)       varies inversely as square of wavelength
c)       is independent of wavelength
d)       varies directly as wavelength
  1. The near field of an antenna varies as :
a) 1/r2 b) 1/r                 c) r                   d) 1/r4
  1. Yagi antenna is used for :
a) television                               b) radar
c) medium wave broadcasting     d) None of these
  1. A broad side array is shown in the figure below, in which the elements are placed at equal distances. The direction of maximum radiation is represented by :
a) AA’               b) BB’               c) CC’               d) DD’
  1. Which of the following will increase the antenna radiation efficiency?
a)       Use of larger section of conductor
b)       providing insulation on conductor
c)       top loading of antenna
d)       any of the above
  1. The effective height of an antenna is slightly greater than physical height be cause :
a)       wave velocity in antenna is less than its velocity in free space.
b)       wave velocity in antenna is more than that of free space.
c)       resistance of antenna is less than that of free space.
d)       None of the above.
  1. An antenna is considered to be in free space when the height above the ground is :
a) >l                 b) >2l               c) >l /2             d) > 5l
  1. If short circuited and open circuited impedances are 5 ohms and 20 ohms, then characteristic impedance is :
a) 1 ohm           b) 10 ohms        c) 25 ohms        d) 100 ohms
  1. The director in a Yagi antenna :
a)       is longer than the radiating element
b)       is shorter than the radiating antenna
c)       can be longer or shorter than the radiating element
d)       does not exist.
  1. An antenna receives twice as much signal power from the front as from the back. What is the front to back ratio in dB :
a) 2 dB              b) 4 dB              c) 6 dB              d) 3 dB
  1. For two identical antennas A and B spaced l/4 apart as shown in the figure, it is possible to have null radiation along the array axis on the right side of B by having an excitation arrangement such that :
a)       the phase of current in antenna B lags behind that of antenna A by p/2 radians.
b)       currents in the antenna are in phase
c)       the phase of current in antenna A lags behind that of antenna B by p/2 radians
d)       current in the antennas are out of phase by p radians
  1. If a current element of a very small length and carrying a current Ioejustradiates a total average power Pr into free space, then Pr will be proportional to :
a) Io b) I2o c) I3o d) I 1-2 o
  1. A dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5W. The efficiency of the antenna is :
a) 0.89159%      b) 8.9159%        c) 89.159%        d) 891.59%
  1. Which of the following is the radiation pattern of Rhombic antenna ;
a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D
  1. Which of the following is the radiation pattern of Yagi – uda antenna :
a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D
  1. A short dipole and a half-wave dipole have radiation resistance of 0.4W and 72W respectively. If the former requires 10A rms current for certain total output power radiated, what would be the current required (approx) by the latter for the same output?
a) 0.25 A           b) 0.50 A           c) 0.75 A           d) 1.0 A
  1. Antenna used in radar is :
a) dipoles                                  b) yagi antenna
c) parabolic dishes                     d) None of these
  1. Television receiver antenna is usually :
a) rhombic antenna                    b) yagi antenna
c) parabolic dishes                     d) turnstile antenna
  1. Induction and radiation fields are equal at a distance equal to :
a) 6/l                b) 6l                 c) l/6                d) 6/l2
  1. Which of the following antennas gives circular polarization :
a) yagi – uda                              b) parabolic
c) dipole                                    d) helical
  1. The gain of a parabolic reflector antenna is given by :
a) 6(D/l)2 b) 6(l/D)2 c) 70 l /D          d) 140 l /D
  1. If l1, l2, l3, l4 …………  are length of different elements of a log periodic antenna, then which of the following is true.
a)
b)
c)
d)
  1. Which of the following statement is false?
a)       A grounded l/4 antenna is one half the length of a l/2 dipole.
b)       A vertical antenna transmits in all directions, in a circle in a horizontal plane.
c)       A grounded vertical antenna transmits ground waves and sky waves.
d)       A counter poise must be a good insulator.
  1. Which of the following can make the antenna electrically longer?
a)       Series capacitor
b)       capacitive top loading
c)       vertical polarisation
d)       Circular polarsation
  1. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in dielectric medium of relative permittivity 9 relatie to free space, the velocity of propagation in the dielectric is  :
a)       increased by a factor of 9
b)       increased by a factor of 3
c)       unchanged
d)       reduced by a factor of 1/3
  1. A unipole is also known as :
a)       omnidirectional radiator
b)       unidirectional radiator
c)       line radiator
d)       None of the above
  1. Radiation intensity does not depend upon :
a)       the antenna direction
b)       distance from the radiator
c)       both (a) and (b) above
d)       None of the above
  1. The numerical value of directivity of current element and half wave dipole is respectively 1.75 dB and 2.15 dB. The directive gain of half wave dipole over current element will be :
a) 3.96 dB         b) 1.22 dB         c) 0.4 dB           d) 0.81 dB
  1. In case of antenna, the ratio of the power radiated in the desired direction to the power radiated in the opposite direction is known as :
a)       transmission efficiency
b)       front to back ratio
c)       loss coefficient
d)       None of the above
  1. In case of antenna decreasing Q :
a)       increases bandwidth
b)       decreases bandwidth
c)       independent of bandwidth
d)       None of the above
  1. The directional pattern of loop antennas :
a)       depends on shape of antenna loc
b)       is independent of shape of the loop
c)       depends on number of turns of loop
d)       None of the above
  1. The ratio of radiation intensity in a particular direction to average radiated power is called :
a)       directive gain
b)       power gain
c)       directivity
d)       DIRP
  1. EIRP is defined as :
a)       Input power X Max gain
b)       Input power/Max. gain
c)       Input power + Max gain
d)       Max gain/input power
  1. For large cross – sectional antennas like horn, parabolic reflector etc., if Apis the physical aperture and Ae the effective aperture than :
a) Ae < Ap b) Ae > Ap
c) Ae = Ap d) Any of the above
  1. The total field produced by an antenna array ststem at a great distance from it is :
a)       sum of the field produced by the individual antennas of the array system
b)       directional gain of antenna
c)       linear antenna gain
d)       vector sum of the field produced by the individual antennas of the array system.
  1. The statements at the left are to be matched with the statements at the right :
1. Rhombic antenna       a) flat line
2. folded dipole              b) 292W radiation resistance
3. SWR of 1                  c) non resonant
4. HF band                    d) 3 to 30 MHz
which of the following represents the matching pairs :
a)       1 (a)  2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (d)
b)       1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 9a)
c)       1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (d)
d)       1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d)
  1. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to dipole is a :
a) null                                       b) circular
c) figure of eight                         d) none of the above
  1. An isotropic antenna is radiating a power of 1 watt. At a distance of 1 metre, the power per unit area will be :
a) 1 watt/m2 b) 4p watt /m2
c) ¼ p watt/m2 d) 2p watt/m2
  1. The parabola antenna is :
a) omnidirectional                       b) non resonant
c) a figure of eight                      d) highly directional
  1. The intrinsic impendance of free space :
a)       increases with increase of frequency
b)       decreases with increase of frequency
c)       does not depend on frequency
d)       behaves randomly
  1. How many parasitic elements are used in a driven array?
a) 1                   b) 2                   c) 4                   d) None
  1. Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on :
a) feed pattern                           b) antenna aperture
c) surface losses                       d) low side lobe level
  1. A loop antenna is a commonly used for :
a) radar                                     b) direction finding
c) satellite communication          d) all of the above
  1. The beamwidth between nulls of 140 cm parabolic reflector used at 6 GHz is :
a) 2.5 degrees                           b) 5 degrees
c) 10 degrees                            d) 7.5 degrees
  1. Five isotropic element placed along the x – axis are fed by in-phase currents of equal amplitudes. The spacing between successive elements is l/4. Consider the following statements about the directivity pattern of the array :
  2. The array will have a maximum in the direction of Y – axis
  3. The field strength in the X – axis direction will be zero
  4. The directivity pattern will have minor lobes.
Of the statements given above :
a)       1, 2 & 3 are correct
b)       1 and 2 are correct
c)       2 and  3 are correct
d)       1 and 3 are correct
  1. A parabolic dish has a diameter of 10m. The maximum possible (ideal) gain of the antenna at l = 314 cm will be :
a) 18 dB            b) 40 dB            c) 50 dB            d) 60 dB
  1. The electric field strength produced by an antenna varies :
a)       directly as the square root of the radiated power
b)       directly as the radiated power
c)       directly as the square of the radiated power
d)       inversely as the square root of the radiated power
  1. The horn antenna is typically used at :
a) 100 kHz                                b) 100 MHz
c) 1000 MHz                              d) 100 Hz
  1. The service range of a TV transmitter is largely determined by:
a)       height of the antenna
b)       gain of the antenna
c)       frequency of the transmitter
d)       Any of the above
  1. The gain of a parabolic antenna increases with :
a)       increase in antenna diameter
b)       reduction in antenna diameter
c)       decrease in frequency
d)       None of the above
  1. The polarization of electromagnetic wave is in :
a)       the direction of electric field
b)       the direction of magnetic field
c)       the direction of electric and magnetic fields
d)       None of the above
  1. The frequency range for satellite communication is :
a)       3 to 30 kHz
b)       300 to 3000 kHz
c)       3000 to 30.000 MHz
d)       30.000 to 300.000 MHz
  1. The transmission antennas for lower frequencies (below 500 kHz) are generally :
a)       vertical grounded wire type
b)       horizontal suspended wire type
c)       parabolic reflector type
d)       any of the above
  1. A vertical earthed antenna is resonant when its physical height is equal to :
a) l                   b) l/2                c) l/4                d) l/8
  1. In a vertical earthed antenna the base input impedance will be capacitive for a height :
a) less than l/4                          b) between l/4 and l/2
c) between l/4 and 3l/2              d) more than 3l/2
  1. Capacitance hats are installed on low frequency antenna to :
a)       increase the effective length
b)       reduce the effective length
c)       protect against lightening
d)       protect against corona effects
  1. An antenna is :
a)       inductive
b)       capacitive
c)       resistive above its resonant frequency
d)       None of the above
  1. The parabolic and lens antennas are used extensively at :
a) SW                                       b) Medium wave
c) microwaves                            d) None
  1. The bandwidth of an antenna is  :
a)       directly proportional to Q
b)       inversely proportional to Q
c)       directly proportional to Q2
d)       directly proportional to I/Q2
  1. The maximum effective aperture of a microwave antenna which has a directivity of 800 will be :
a) 63.69 l2 b) 633.9 l2 c) 6.369 l2 d) 0.639 l2
  1. A thin dipole antenna is l/15 long. Its radiation resistance will be :
a) 3.5 W            b) 0.35W           c) 35W              d) 7W
  1. The directivity of small current element of length l/20 s :
a) 0.05              b) 20                 c) 1.5                d) 1
  1. An isotropic antenna is radiating 1 kW. The field at a distance of 1 km from it will be :
a) 173m V/m     b) 242m V/m     c) 122m V/m     d) 1m V/m
  1. A transmitting antenna having an effective height of 61m takes a current of 50 Amp (rms) at a wavelength of 625 metres. The radiation resistance of the antenna is :
a) 15W              b) 7.5W             c) 30W              d) 3.75W
  1. In the above question, the power radiated will be :
a) 37.5 kW        b) 18.75 kW      c) 75 kW           d) 9.3 kW
  1. An antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50 ohm line. If losses are ignored, then its efficiency will be nearly :
a) 0.19              b) 0.81              c) 0.97              d) 1.19
  1. Consider the following statements about log – periodic antennas :
a)       They operate over a wide frequency range
b)       Input impedance varies periodically with the logarithm of frequency.
c)       Logarithm of input impedance varies periodically with frequency.
d)       For single frequency operation only a portion of the antenna radiates.
Of these statements :
a)       1,2 and 4 are correct
b)       3 and 4 are correct
c)       1 and 4 are correct
d)       1 alone is correct.
  1. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – I                           List – II
A. End fire array 1. inefficient radiation
B. Half wave dipole         2. in -phase excitation
C. Broadside array         3. quadrature excitation
D. Hertzian                    4. broadcast antenna
Codes :
A          B          C          D
a)         3          2          4          1
b)         3          4          2          1
c)         1          4          2          3
d)         1          2          4          3
  1. Helical antenna are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because of :
a)       super refraction
b)       troposcatter
c)       ionospheric refraction
d)       the Faraday effect
  1. Side lobe of an antenna causes :
a)       Reduction in gain of antenna
b)       reduces beam width of antenna
c)       ambiguity in direction finding
d)       All of the above
  1. Large antenna is used in radar because :
a)       it gives higher gain
b)       it gives less side lobes
c)       increase the beamwidth
d)       None of the above
  1. Antenna commonly used for microwave links are
a)       Yagi – uda antenna
b)       log periodic antenna
c)       paraboloidal dishes
d)       rhombic antenna
  1. A hertzian dipole has a radiation pattern with :
a)       a null in the direction of the dipole
b)       a null in the plane perpendicular to the dipole
c)       a peak in the direction of the dipole
d)       none of the above
  1. A rhombic antenna is a :
a)       resonant antenna
b)       omnidirectional antenna
c)       non – resonant antenna
d)       None of the above
  1. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflecter to :
a)       increase the gain of the system
b)       increase the beamwidth of the system
c)       reduce the size of the main reflector
d)       allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point
  1. Multiple wire conductors are used for Rhombic antenna to ;
a)       increase strength
b)       reduce capacitance
c)       reduce characteristic impedance
d)       All of the above
  1. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracing because of its :
a)       Circular polarisation
b)       manevarability
c)       broad bandwidth
d)       good front to back ratio
  1. To produce given radiation attern, a Marconi antenna need be:
a)       double the size of the hertz antenna
b)       half the size of the Hertz antenna
c)       of some size as he Hertz antenna
d)       four times the size of the Hertz antenna
  1. Antenna arrays are used :
a)       to obtain a desired radiation pattern
b)       to obtain an increased radiation efficiency
c)       to increase the effective length of the antenna
d)       to reduce the side lobes.
  1. An antenna has an effective height of 50m and the current at the base is 450 Amp (rms) at 40 kHz. The power radiated is :
a) 14 kW           b) 28 kW           c) 42 kW           d) 56 kW
  1. At what distance from a 100 Hz circuit is the radiation field approximately equal to the induction field :
a) 477 km          b) 954 km          c) 18000 km      d) 238 km
  1. A linear broadside array consists of four equal isotropic in phase point source with l/3 spacing (overall length of the array -= l). The half power beamwidth is :
a) 51°                b) 115°              c) 25.6°             d) 102°
  1. A thin dipole antenna l/15 long has a beam solid angle given by :
a) 8 dr b) 16 dr c) 24 dr d) 32 dr
  1. The beamwidth between first nulls of a 2m paraboloid reflector operating at 6 GHz is :
a) 1.9°               b) 3.8°               c) 5.7°               d) 7.6°
  1. Cassegrain feed :
a)       eliminates aperture blocking
b)       increases the gain of the paraboloid reflector
c)       reduces the long runs of transmission line to primary feed
d)       reduces the power in the side lobes.
  1. The problem of aperture blocking in a cassegrain feed can be eliminated by using :
a)       offset reflector
b)       trans – reflector
c)       rear feed
d)       dipole feed
  1. The required phase difference between the feeds of successive elements in an end fire array :
a)       is zero
b)       is 180 degrees
c)       depends upon the distance between the elements
d)       depends upon the number of elements
  1. Increase in the number of radiators in a large – sized broadside array with fixed inter-element spacing leads to :
a)       increased side lobes
b)       widening of the main lobes
c)       narrowing of the main lobes
d)       None of the above
  1. A linear end – fire array of isotropic elements has :
a)       maximum radiation along the           of the array
b)       maximum radiation normal to   line of the array
c)       maximum radiation in a direction which depends on the length of the array
d)       is isotropic
  1. The actual gain if a parabolic antenna diameter D = 10 can be approximated by G = 2p (D/l)2 what is the effective aperture area of the antenna?
a) 100m2 b) 75 m2 c) 50m2 d) 25m2
  1. One of the following is a of non – resonant antenna
a)       the rhombic antenna
b)       the folded dipole
c)       the end fire – array
d)       the broadside array
  1. One of the following is very useful as multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the :
a)       conical horn
b)       folded dipole
c)       log – periodic
d)       square loop
  1. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide ?
a) biconical        b) horn              c) helical           d) discone
  1. Which one of the following term is in-correct for Yagi – Uda array?
a)       good bandwidth
b)       parasitic elements
c)       folded dipole
d)       high gain
  1. The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the :
a)       infinitesimal dipole
b)       isotropic antenna
c)       elementary doublet
d)       half wave dipole
  1. Top loading is sometimes used with an antenna in order to increase its :
a)       effective height
b)       bandwidth
c)       beamwidth
d)       input capacitance
  1. In end fire array the principle direction of radiation :
a)       is perpendicular to the array axis
b)       is perpendicular to the array axis and also to the plane containing the array elements
c)       same as the direction of the array axis
d)       is at 45° to the direction of array axis
  1. In binomial arrays the elimination of secondary lobes takes place :
a)       at the cost of directivity
b)       at the cost of gain
c)       at the cost of beamwidth
d)       All of the above
  1. In a broadside array of 20 isotropic radiators, equally spaced at a distance of  l/2, the beamwidth between first nulls is :
a) 51.3 degrees                          b) 11.46 degrees
c) 22.9 degrees                          d) 102.6 degrees
  1. In a broadside array maximum radiation occurs :
a)       at 90° to the line of the array
b)       at 45° to the line of the array
c)       along the line of the array
d)       at 60° to line of the array
  1. Radiation resistance of a Hertzian dipole of length dl is :
a)       80p (dl/l)2 ohms
b)       80p (dl /l) ohms
c)       80 (ldl/p) ohms
d)       80 (pdl / l)2 ohms
  1. In a turnstile antenna, the crossed dipoles are excited with voltage such that the phase shift between the voltage is :
a) zero              b) 45°                c) 90°                d) 180°
  1. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its :
a)       circular polarisation
b)       maneuverability
c)       broad bandwidth
d)       good front to back ratio
  1. The discone antenna is :
a)       a useful direction – finding antenna
b)       used as a radar receiving antenna
c)       circularly polarized like other circular antennas
d)       useful as a UHF receiving antenna
  1. One of the following is not an omnidirectional antenna :
a)       half wave dipole
b)       log – periodic
c)       discone
d)       marconi
  1. Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on :
a)       feed pattern
b)       antenna aperture
c)       surface losses
d)       low side lobe level
  1. The direction of radiation in the collinear array shown below will be :
a) AA’               b) BB’               c) CC’               d) DD’
  1. The differential loop signal voltage in aloop antenna depends upon :
a)       the wavelenth of incoming signal
b)       the angle of loop orientation
c)       the loop area
d)       all of these
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
A. Cassegrain antenna               1. Large bandwidth
B. Yagi antenna                         2. Direction finding
C. Parabolic reflector                  3. Radar antenna
D. Loop antenna                        4. Directional transmission
Codes :
A          B          C          D
a)         1          4          2          3
b)         3          1          4          2
c)         2          4          3          1
d)         3          2          4          1
  1. Polarisation of radio waves is determined by :
a)       the directivity of the antenna
b)       the direction of the magnetic flux lines with respect to the surface of earth
c)       the direction of electric flux lines with respect to the surface of the earth
d)       the efficiency of the antenna.
  1. An antenna is to cover the VHF freq., range from 54 to 216 MHz. If the radiated is required to be 25W for an input current of 0.5 A the effective length of antenna will be
a) 0.988 m         b) 0.629 m         c) 0.4943m        d)n 0.5 m
  1. Which of the following is the correct angular aperture for a paraboloidal reflector antenna for which the aperture number is 0.25?
a) 45°                b) 90°                c) 120°              d) 180°
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I (types of antenna)              List II (Features)
A. Helical antenna                      1. circular polarization
B. Horn antenna             2. simplicity and
compactness
C. Hoghorn antenna                   3. low noise
D. Parabolic dish with                 4. high
horn feed.                            directivity
Codes :
A          B          C          D
a)         1          2          3          4
b)         4          3          2          1
c)         2          1          4          3
d)         1          2          4          3
  1. T.V. broadcasting in India is done in :
a) VHF bands                            b) UHF bands
c) microwave bands                    d) HF bands
  1. A radio station works at 800 kHz and uses AM. If this is a public broadcast system, it should transmit using :
a)       parabolic reflector to transmit all round
b)       turnstile antenna for the required band
c)       half – wave long horizontal wire
d)       a vertical antenna less than quarter for practical reasons.
  1. In order to receive a vertically polarized wave, the conductor of the dipole should be mounted :
a) horizontally                            b) vertically
c) at an angle of 45°                   d) None of these
  1. The absorption of electromagnetic waves by the atmosphere depends on :
a)       the frequency in use
b)       the polarization of waves
c)       distance from the transmitter
d)       all of the above
  1. Two dissimilar antennas having their maximum directivites equal :
a)       must have their beamwidths also equal
b)       cannot have their beamwidths equal because they are dissimilar antennas
c)       may not necessarily have their maximum power gains equal
d)       must have their effective aperture areas (capture areas) also equal.
  1. While determining antenna height for terrestial microwaves links, the effect of refraction from the atmosphere is taken care of by considering the effective curvature of the earth to be :
a)       2/3 times the radius of earth
b)       ¾ times the radius of earth
c)       4/3 times the radius of earth
d)       3/2 times the radius of earth
  1. Match List I (Microwave band) with List II (frequency used in satellite communication) and select the correct answer using codes given below the correct answer using codes given below the list :
List I                             List II
A. C – band                    1. 12GHz to 14 GHz
B. Ku – band                  2. 24 GHz to 26 GHz
C. Ka – band                  3. 20 GHz to 30 GHz
4. 4GHz to 6 GHz
Codes :
A          B          C
a)         4          2          1
b)         2          1          3
c)         4          1          3
d)         3          4          2
  1. A 1 km long microwave link uses two antennas each having 30dB gain. If the power transmitted by one antenna is 1W at 3HGz, the power received by the other antenna is approximately :
a) 98.6 m/W       b) 76.8 mW        c) 63.4 mW        d) 55.2 mW
  1. The advantage of microwave over lower frequency signals is :
a)       increased bandwidth
b)       ability to use high gain
c)       increased secrecy
d)       all of the above
  1. When the peak power is 100.000 watts and the average power is 800 watts then the duty cycle is
a) 0.008 percent             b) 0.08 percent
c) 0.8 percent                            d) 8 percent
  1. For frequencies upto 1650 kHz, the transmitting antenna used is a :
a)       parabolic dish
b)       vertical antenna
c)       yagi antenna
d)       turnstile antenna
  1. The wave radiated by a helical antenna is :
a)       linearly polarized
b)       right circularly polarized
c)       left circularly polarized
d)       elliptically polarized
  1. The half power beamwidths (HPBW) of an antenna in the two orthogonal planes are 100 and 60 respectively. The directivity of the antenna is approximately equal to :
a) 2 dB              b) 5 dB              c) 8 dB              d) 12 dB

RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009

Posted by Carees India On 12:51 PM

RRB previous papers Solved papers GK Current affairs GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza
16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D

BSNL TTA EXAM Control Systems

Posted by Carees India On 12:30 PM

1. An open loop control system has its
(a) control action independent of the output or desired quantity
(b) controlling action, depending upon human judgment
(c) internal system changes automatically taken care of
(d) both (a) and (b)
(e) all (a),(b) and (c)
2. A servo system must have
(a) feedback system
(b) power amplifier to amplify error
(c) capacity to control position or its derivative
(d) all of these
(e) none of these
3. The major disadvantage of a feedback system may be
(a) Inaccuracy
(b) inefficiency
(c) Unreliability
(d) instability
(e) Insensitivity
4. Properties of a transfer function
(a) It is ratio of two polynomials is S and assumes zero initial conditions
(b) It depends on system elements and not input and output of the system
(c) Coefficients of the powers of S in denominator and numerator are all real constant. The order of denominator is usually greater than or equal to the order of numerator
(d) All of these
(e) It is a function which transfer one physical system into another physical system.
5. The classical analogous of a simple lever is
(a) Capacitor bridge
(b) transformer
(c) mutual inductor
(d) either of these
6. Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function as
(a) G1(s) + G2(s)
(b) G1(s) / G2(s)
(c) G1(s) G2(s)
(d) 1+G1(s) G2(s)
(e) 1-G1(s)G2(s)
(f) two blocks cannot be cascaded
7. The principles of homogeneity and super position can be applied to
(a) linear time invariant system
(b) non-linear time invariant system
(c) digital control system
(d) both (a) and (b)
8. Pick up the nonlinear system
(a) automatic voltage regulator
(b) d.c. servomotor with high field excitation
(c) temperature control of a furnaces using thermistor
(d) speed control using SCR
(e) all of these
9. Signal flow graph (SFG) is a
(a) polar graph
(b) semi log graph
(c) log log graph
(d) a special type of graph for analyzing modem control system
(e) a topological representation of a set of differential equations
10. Disadvantages of magnetic amplifier
(a) time lag, less flexible, non-sinusoidal waveform
(b) low power consumption and isolation of the active circuit
(c) saturation of the core
(d) all of these
11. Pick up false statement regarding magnetic amplifiers
(a) The gate coil of an ideal magnetic amplifier has either zero or infinite inductance
(b) Resistance of control and gate winding is very small
(c) Magnetic amplifier gas dropping load characteristics
(d) Magnetic amplifiers are not used to control the speed of d.c. shunt motor
(e) Magnetic amplifiers can be used in automatic control of electric drivers of higher rating.
12. High power amplification is achieved by using
(a) push pull amplifier
(b) amplidyne
(c) magnetic amplifier
(d) DC amplifier
(e) D.C. generator
13. Pick up false statement regarding servomotors
(a) The d.c. servomotors are lighter than equivalent a.c. servomotors
(b) The d.c. servomotors develops higher starting and reversing torque than equivalent a.c. servomotor.
(c) A drag cup a.c. servomotor has one windings on stator and other on rotor
(d) Output power of servomotors varies from 1/20 W to 100 W
14. To reduce steady state error
(a) decrease natural frequency
(b) decrease damping
(c) increase damped frequency
(d) increase time constant
(f) increase gain constant of the system
15. A good factor for Mp should be
(a) less than 1
(b) lying between 1.1 and 1.5
(c) more than 2.2
(d) zero
(e) infinity
16. Pick up false statement. Routh-Hurwitz criterion
(a) is used for determining stability of a system
(b) is an algebraic procedure
(c) gives the exact location of roots of the characteristic equation
(d) does not indicate relative degree of stability or instability
17. Which of the following is the time domain method of determining stability of a control system
(a) Bode plot
(b) Nyquist plot
(c) Nicholos chart
(d) Routh-Hurwitz array
(e) Constant M and (fy) locus
(f) Root locus technique
18. The technique which gives transient response quickly as well as stability information is
(a) Nyquist plot
(b) Routh-Hurwitz criteria
(c) Bode plot
(d) Root locus plot
(e) Nichols plot
19. The bandwidth can be increased by use of
(a) phase lag network
(b) phase lead network
(c) both (a) and (b) in cascade
(d) both (a) and (b) in parallel
(e) none of these
20. Nyquist plot is drawn on
(a) semi log graph paper
(b) log log graph paper
(c) polar graph paper
(d) centimeter graph paper
21. If the gain margin is positive and the phase margin is negative the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) indeterminist
22. The Bode plot is applicable to
(a) all phase network
(b) minimum phase network
(c) maximum phase network
(d) lag lead network
(e) none of these
23. The valid relation between setting time ts and rise time tr is
(a) tr>ts
(b) ts>tr
(c) ts=tr
(d) none of these
24. As a root moves further away from imaginary axis the stability
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) not affected
(d) none of these
25. Flat frequency response means that the magnitude ratio of output to input over the bandwidth is
(a) variable
(b) zero
(c) constant
(d) none of above
26. How many octaves are between 200 Hz and 800 Hz
(a) Two octave
(b) One octave
(c) Four octave
(d) None of above
27. Human system can be considered as
(a) open loop system
(b) close loop system with single feedback
(c) close loop system with multivariable feedback
(d) none of these
28. In a feedback system the transient response
(a) Decays at constant rate
(b) gets magnified
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays more quickly
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate
(a) the steady state gain
(b) the main constant
(c) the order of system
(d) the output for any given input
(e) all of the above
30. Transfer function of a system is defined as the ratio of output to input in
(a) Laplace transform
(b) Z-transform
(c) Fourier transform
(d) Simple algebraic form
31. Introduction of feedback decreases the effect of
(a) disturbances
(b) noise signals
(c) error signals
(d) all the above
32. The system response of a system can be best tested with
(a) unit impulse input signal
(b) ramp input signal
(c) sinusoidal input signal
(d) exponentially decaying input signal
33. Which of the following is a closed loop system
(a) electric switch
(b) car starter
(c) de generator
(d) auto-pilot for an aircraft
34. Which of the following is used as an error detector
(a) potentiometer
(b) field controlled ac motor
(c) amplidyne
(d) armature controlled ac motor
35. The break away point of root loci are
(a) open loop poles
(b) closed loop poles
(c) open loop zeros
(d) closed loop zeros
36. Noise in a control system can be kept low by
(a) reducing the bandwidth
(b) attenuating such frequencies at which external signals get coupled into the system
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
37. Main cause of absolute instability in the control system is
(a) parameters of controlling system
(b) parameters of controlled system
(c) parameters of feedback system
(d) error detector where the two signals are compared
38. Basically a controller is
(a) a amplifier
(b) a clipper
(c) a comparator
(d) a summer
39. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
(a) highly stable
(b) highly oscillatory
(c) relatively stable
(d) none of these
40. Which of following elements is not used in an automatic control system
(a) sensor
(b) error detector
(c) oscillator
(d) final control element
41. AC systems are usually preferred to the DC systems in control applications because
(a) AC systems are cheaper
(b) AC systems are more stable
(c) AC systems have better performance characteristics and smaller in size
(d) all of these
42. A system has the transfer function (1-s)/(1+s); It is known as
(a) low pass system
(b) high pass system
(c) all pass system
(d) none of the above
43. In control systems, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because
(a) noise is proportional to bandwidth
(b) it leads to low relative stability
(c) it leads to slow speed of response
(d) none of these
44. In most systems, an increase in gain leads to
(a) larger damping ratio
(b) smaller damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
(d) none of these
45. A step function is applied to the input of a system and output is of the form y = t, the system is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) not necessarily stable
(d) conditionally stable
46. Which of the following can be magnified by magnetic amplifier
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) none of above
47. The inductance is not used in lag network because of
(a) big size
(b) time delay and hysteresis losses
(c) high reactance
(d) none of these
48. Saturation in a stable control system can cause
(a) conditional stability
(b) over damping
(c) low level oscillations
(d) high level oscillations
49. Excessive noise in control systems can cause
(a) reduction in bandwidth
(b) reduction in gain
(c) saturation in amplifying stages
(d) oscillations
50. The type-0 system has
(a) net pole at the origin
(b) no pole at the origin
(c) simple at one origin
(d) two poles at the origin

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